3 Responses to “What makes a rich guy in the 18th century mad?”


  1. 1    Verity M September 4, 2009 at 6:37 PM

    The answer depends so much on who and where. Cultural influences will have a profound effect on the types of things that would infuriate a wealthy male in the 1700’s and they would be different in different cultures and countries.

    Assuming you mean in England and/or the American colonies, however, discovering that she had defied him– perhaps by actively and openly advocating the abolition of slavery (to a slave-holding man) or by openly supporting a rival to the throne of England after being warned not to do so would be sufficient to justify such an act of force against a woman.

  2. 2    NoPlate September 4, 2009 at 6:37 PM

    It could also be something completely domestic. He tells her they will do such-and-so and she replies he can’t force her to do anything. I think that would certainly provoke a slap in those days!

  3. 3    ammianus September 4, 2009 at 6:37 PM

    She didn’t have to do anything – men had all the power and all the rights at this time.For example, as soon as a woman married, all her property and possessions immediately belonged to her husband by law.If he wanted to slap her across the face, just because he felt like it, he could.There was nothing she could do it about it.His fiancee would have to do as she was told as well.It was considered a considerable social stigma for a woman to remain unmarried.Even talking back, or disagreeing with anything the man says, would be seen as reasonable cause at the time for striking the woman.

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